Hi, I live in Mumbai, I’m planning to buy a property, but there’s a situation with it.
Let me demonstrate that:
Builder – A – B – Me
I’m buying property from B, and he has bought it from A who bought it from Builder.
Now there’s a valid and ideal agreement between A and B, but there’s not a agreement between builder and A.
As per B, A bought the property in 90s from builder, and that time practices like this were common.
Also B has done the public notice process by getting an advert out in the newspaper in 2021 and he also has a letter from the local police station confirming the advert.
Now, since there’s no agreement between builder and A, as per my limited knowledge the property’s title is not clear.
So if I buy this property would there be any issue, as in would it be illegal?
Please help me with this
Thanks.